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Cells

Cell structure and organelles

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Describe the structure of the nucleus: (3 points)
  1. It has a nuclear envelope with pores.
  2. It contains DNA associated with histones.
  3. It contains a nucleolus.
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2022 A-Level Paper 1 Q1.1 (4 marks)

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4 functions of the nucleus:
  1. It stores genetic material for the coding of polypeptides.
  2. DNA replication occurs inside of it.
  3. Transcription (production of mRNA and tRNA) occurs.
  4. rRNA and ribosomes are produced.
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2022 A-Level Paper 1 Q1.1 (4 marks)

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How should you describe the mitochondrion’s function?

Say it is the site of aerobic respiration and produces ATP or releases energy (or both).Note: Just don't say it 'produces energy'.

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2017 As Paper 1 Q7.3 (1 marks)

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What is the purpose of a mitochondrion's inner cristae?

Increasing the capacity for ATP synthesis by increasing the surface area of the inner membrane, which is where oxidative phosphorylation occurs.

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2016 A-Level Unit 5 Q9(b) (3 marks)

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4 pieces of evidence that mitochondria evolved from prokaryotic cells:
  1. They have circular DNA.
  2. They have 70s ribosomes.
  3. Their DNA has no introns.
  4. Their DNA isn’t associated with histonesNote: Basically all the features of prokaryotic cells. These could also be applied to chloroplasts.
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2016 Unit 1 Q1(c)(i) (1 mark)

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2 roles of the rough endoplasmic reticulum:
  1. It contains ribosomes where protein synthesis occurs.
  2. It transports, modifies and processes the proteins once they have been synthesised.
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2024 A-Level Paper 1 Q10.2 (5 marks)

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After packaging up the contents produced in the golgi apparatus, what do the golgi vesicles do?

They move the contents to the cell membrane and then fuse with it, releasing the contents to the outside of the cell.

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2018 As Paper 2 Q1.2 (2 marks)

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What is the function of the chloroplast?

It is the site of photosynthesis, where light energy is used to produce carbohydrates.

Note: mentioning 'photosynthesis', 'using light energy' and 'producing carbohydrates' were all their own separate marks.

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January 2012 As Unit 2 Q1(b) (2 marks)

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3 ways palisade cells (typical plant cells) are adapted for photosynthesis:
  1. They contain chlorophyll in chloroplasts to absorb light.
  2. The large permanent vacuole pushes the chloroplasts to the edge of the cell.
  3. They have a thin/ permeable wall to absorb carbon dioxide.Note: Don’t confuse this with the adaptations of a leaf (e.g. gaps in the spongy mesophyll layer)
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January 2010 As Unit 2 Q1(b)(iii) (1 marks)

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2 distinct features of red blood cells and the use of both of them:
  1. They have no nucleus or organelles to maximise the volume for haemoglobin.
  2. They have a biconcave shape that allows them to bend and flow smoothly through the capillaries.
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2022 A-Level Paper 1 Q8.1 (2 marks)

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4 features found in all prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells:
  1. Cell membranes.
  2. Ribosomes.
  3. Cytoplasm.
  4. DNA.
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2021 As Paper 2 Q4.1 (2 marks)

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6 differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells:
  1. Prokaryotic has no membrane-bound organelles.
  2. Prokaryotic has circular DNA (not linear) that lies free in the cytoplasm.
  3. Prokaryotic’s DNA is not associated with histones/ proteins.
  4. Prokaryotic’s cell wall is made of murein (instead of chitin for fungi or cellulose for plant cells)
  5. Prokaryotes have smaller, 70S ribosomes (vs. 80S)
  6. Prokaryotic DNA contains no introns.
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2021 A-level P1 June Q10.3 (5 marks)

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3 structures that are found in some but not all prokaryotic cells:
  1. Plasmids.
  2. Flagellum.
  3. Capsule.
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2025 A-Level Paper 1 Q4.1 (2 marks)

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What two types of molecule is a ribosome made from?
  1. Ribosomal RNA (rRNA)
  2. Protein.

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2017 A-Level Paper 1 Q01.1 (1 marks)

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Microscopy

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What can a light microscope see and not see in a cell?

It CAN see the nucleus and mitochondria. It cannot see basically everything else (ribosomes, nucleolus, lysosomes etc.)Note: there appears to be some contradiction in the mark schemes - sometimes mitochondria can be seen, sometimes they can’t.

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2023 As Paper 1 Q4.2 (2 marks)

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Why do specimens need to be thin to be seen by an optical microscope? (2 point explanation)
  1. To create a single layer of cells.
  2. This means light can pass through Bonus note: the specimen can be made thin by cutting a thin layer of tissue or by pressing down on it with a coverlip.
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2024 A-Level Paper 1 Q3.2 (2 marks)

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2024 As Paper 2 Q5.4 (2 marks)

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2016 As Paper 2 Q2.2 (2 marks)

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2022 A-Level Paper 3 Q3.2 (2 marks)

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Why do electron microscopes have a higher resolution than light microscopes?

Electrons have a shorter wavelength than light.

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2022 As Paper 1 Q3.3 (1 marks)

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Why are electron microscopes needed to identify organelles?

A high resolution is needed to see the internal structure of organellesNote: to identify something (in this case organelles), you need to be able to see its internal structure. This is why you had to specify that electron microscopes are able to see the internal structure of ‘organelles’, not just ‘cells’.

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Specimen A-Level Paper 3 Q2.3 (2 marks)

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Why would an electron microscope be unable to identify a given organelle within a red blood cell?

The cytoplasm of a red blood cell is filled with haemoglobin - it doesn’t contain any organelles.

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2022 A-Level Paper 1 Q8.1 (2 marks)

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How does a TEM work? (4 points)
  1. Electrons pass through the specimen.
  2. The denser parts absorb more electrons.
  3. The denser parts therefore appear darker.
  4. Electrons have a short wavelength so produce a high resolution.Note: This should just be mentioned in every question about electron microscopes

Note: TEMs focus using magnets and optical microscopes focus using lenses.

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2015 As Unit 1 Q9(b) (5 marks)

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Limitations of using a TEM (vs. both an optical microscope and SEM): (6 points)
  1. Specimen cannot be living as it is viewed in a vacuum.
  2. Specimen must be very thin.
  3. Artifacts can be present.
  4. The staining method is complex and the preparation time is therefore long.
  5. Only 2D images can be produced (vs. 3D images with an SEM)
  6. Only black and white images can be produced (vs. colour images with an optical)
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2015 As Unit 1 Q9(b) (5 marks)

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2017 A-Level Paper 1 Q10.1 (6 marks)

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How should you describe and explain the difference between images produced by SEMs and images produced by TEMs?

SEMs produce 3D images where only the surfaces are visible, whereas TEMs produce 2D images where the internal structures are visible, as electrons are deflected when using SEMs, but electrons are transmitted when using TEMs.

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2022 As Paper 1 Q3.2 (2 marks)

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One other advantage of using an SEM over a TEM, aside from it producing 3D images and the surface of the specimen being visible:

The specimen doesn’t need to be as thin.Note: References to cost, time to set-up or ease of staining don’t tend to be accepted.

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January 2011 Unit 1 Q1(c)(ii) (1 marks)

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How to use an eyepiece graticule: (3 points)
  1. Measure the specimen using an eyepiece graticule.
  2. Calibrate the eyepiece graticule against a stage micrometer.
  3. Take multiple measurements and calculate a mean.
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2017 As Paper 2 Q6.1 (3 marks)

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Describe how scientists could find the mean number of capillaries per mm² in samples of heart muscle: (4 points)
  1. They would measure the diameter of the field of view and calculate the area.
  2. Using the stage micrometer and eyepiece graticule.
  3. They would then count the number of capillaries in a large number of different fields of view and calculate a mean.
  4. They would select the fields of view randomly to avoid bias.
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Not from a mark scheme I can find, but useful content to know.

Steps in preparing a temporary mount (of plant tissue): (4 points)
  1. Add a drop of water to the slide.
  2. Get a section of the plant tissue and place on the slide, floating it on the water.
  3. Stain with iodine in potassium iodide.
  4. Lower cover slip at an angle using a mounted needle to avoid trapping air bubbles.
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Specimen A-Level Paper 3 Q2.1 (4 marks)

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Centrifugation

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Describe and explain how you would use cell fractionation and ultracentrifugation to obtain a sample of nuclei from muscle tissue: (6 points)
  1. Homogenise the tissue to break open the cells and release the organelles.
  2. Filter to remove intact tissue (connective tissue) and debris.
  3. Place it in a cold solution to prevent enzyme activity.
  4. Place it in an isotonic solution to prevent osmosis so the organelles don’t burst or shrink.
  5. Place it in a buffered solution to prevent proteins/ enzymes denaturing.
  6. Centrifuge/spin at a low speed so the nuclei form the pellet, then discard the supernatant.
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2024 A-Level Paper 1 Q10.1 (6 marks)

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2015 As Unit 1 Q9(a) (5 marks)

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If a question is about separating organelles using centrifugation, what key word must you avoid?

‘Cells’.Note: Often mark schemes will ‘reject’ any mention of cells when organelles should be being discussed. If you're meant to be talking about organelles shrinking or bursting due to osmosis, do NOT accidentally say the ‘cells’ shrink or burst, for example. (Obviously this doesn’t apply when you’re talking about breaking open cells by blending them during homogenisation to release the organelles).

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2017 A-Level Paper 2 Q4.1 (2 marks)

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What does putting organelles in an isotonic solution do?

It prevents them from being damaged due to shrinking or bursting caused by osmosis.Note: I don’t believe all of this wording is needed on every mark scheme, but include it just in case.Note 2: One mark scheme wanted you to say it prevents bursting of the organelles, so mention both bursting and damage.

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2019 As Paper 1 Q5.6 (3 marks)

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June 2010 As Unit 1 Q3(d)(iv) (2 marks)

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June 2010 A-Level Unit 4 Q6(b)(i) (1 marks)

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How should you describe the first spin of ultracentrifugation?

You should say it occurs at a 'low' speed and that the nuclei in the pellet move to the bottom as they are the heaviest organelle.

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2024 A-Level Paper 1 Q10.1 (6 marks)

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2024 As Paper 2 Q3.1 (4 marks)

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If you know the molecule you are trying to separate using ultracentrifugation is light, what must you say when describing how to separate it?

You must describe discarding the pellet after the first spin, then respinning the supernatant at a higher speed (then repeating until the molecule you’re trying to separate becomes the pellet). You should also always mention the molecules separating based on mass.Note: One mark scheme used the non-comparative wording ‘high speed’ when describing how to spin the supernatant, but I think you would’ve gotten away with using the comparative ‘higher’, so use this at is what appears on most mark schemes.

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2018 A-Level Paper 3 Q5.2 (2 marks)

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Mitosis

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Definition of a homologous pair of chromosomes:

Two chromosomes that carry the same genes.Note: They have the same shape, size and gene loci.

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2018 A-Level Paper 1 Q1.5 (1 marks)

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4 reasons mitosis is important to organisms:
  1. It allows for growth.
  2. It allows tissues and organs to be repaired as it allows cells to be replaced.
  3. It produces genetically identical cells.Note: this is the only out of the 4 that wasn’t a function, suggesting it’s just a good thing to mention on any mitosis question.
  4. It can be used in asexual reproduction.
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June2012 Unit 2 Q4(a) (2 marks)

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Describe what happens in prophase: (1 point)

The chromosomes condense and become visibleNote: the nuclear envelope breaks down and the spindle forms, but these are rarely (if ever) points on mark schemes.

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2021 A-Level Paper 1 Q6.2 (5 marks)

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Describe what happens in metaphase: (2 points)
  1. The centromeres of the chromosomes attach to the spindle.
  2. The chromosomes line up at the equator of the cell.
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June 2011 Unit 2 Q4(a)(i) (2 marks)

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Describe what happens in anaphase: (3 points)
  1. The centromeres divide.
  2. The chromatids are pulled to opposite poles of the cell.
  3. When the spindle fibres shorten and contract.
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2021 A-Level Paper 1 Q6.2 (5 marks)

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What does the V-shape appearance of chromatids during anaphase show?

It shows they are being pulled apart by their centromeres.Note: Mention both of these - V-shape and centromeres - in a long question about mitosis.

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Specimen As Paper 2 Q1.2 (2 marks)

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3 ways telophase can be identified visually:
  1. The cytoplasm dividing.
  2. The cell membrane being pinched and a new cell membrane forming.
  3. The chromosomes not being visible.
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2024 As Paper 1 Q3.4 (2 marks)

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3 features of chromosomes that show mitosis is currently occurring:
  1. The chromosomes will be visible because they have condensed.
  2. The chromosomes will be made of two chromatids because DNA has replicated.
  3. The chromosomes are not arranged in homologous pairs.
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2018 A-Level Paper 1 Q1.1 (2 marks)

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How can the growth rate of cells be increased? (4 points + explanation for each)
  1. Increased concentration of glucose - increases respiration.
  2. Increased concentration of oxygen - increases respiration.
  3. Increased temperature - increases enzyme activity.
  4. Increased concentration of phosphate - increases ATP/DNA/RNA.
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2020 As Paper 1 Q7.4 (4 marks)

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Definition of a tumour: (2 points)
  1. An abnormal mass of cells.
  2. Where uncontrolled mitosis is occurringNote: Remember that uncontrolled mitosis occurs in both benign and malignant tumours, and that malignant tumours are cancerous because they invade other parts of the body.
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AS P1 June 2022 Q07.1 (2 marks)

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Why are drugs that stop mitosis used to treat cancer even if they affect healthy cells?

Because cancerous cells divide more rapidly.Note: I suppose this means the drugs will have a larger effect on the cancerous cells compared to the healthy cells.

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2019 As Paper 1 Q9.2 (1 marks)

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Describe binary fission in bacteria: (3 points)
  1. Replication of (circular) DNA.
  2. Replication of plasmids.
  3. The cytoplasm divides and new membranes form to produce daughter cells.

Note: you could've have also just said 'cytokinesis'.

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2025 A-Level Paper 3 Q1.1 (3 marks)

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2020 As Paper 1 Q7.1 (3 marks)

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Why could a drug that shortens interphase result in the formation of a tumour? (3 points)
  1. DNA replication will occur faster.
  2. This causes a faster cell cycle and uncontrolled cell division.
  3. This results in a mass of abnormal cells.
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2020 A-Level Paper 1 Q05.4 (2 marks)

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RP 2 – Mitotic Index

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What are 2 key steps when preparing a microscope slide (of a root tip) and what is the reasoning for both steps?
  1. Squash it under the cover slip to spread the tissue and make a thin layer of cells, allowing light to pass through so the cells can be visible.Note: this also allows the stain to enter the cells.
  2. Don’t push sideways to avoid rolling cells together and breaking chromosomes.
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Specimen As Paper 2 Q01.1 (2 marks)

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2 reasons you would add a plant root to acid before examining its mitotic index:
  1. To break down its cell walls, allowing the stain to pass more easily into the cells and so the cells can be squashed more easily.
  2. To stop mitosis from occurring.
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2023 As Paper 1 Q08.1 (1 marks)

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5 reasons one student’s mitotic index may not be the same as another’s, despite following the same method:
  1. The roots examined may be a different age or grown in different conditions.
  2. The roots examined may be from different plants or even species.
  3. The sample size used may not be large enough to be representative of a root tip.
  4. They may have examined different parts of the root tip.
  5. Different cells undergo mitosis at different times and different rates.
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2022 A-Level Paper 3 Q03.5 (2 marks)

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4 precautions to follow when using concentrated hydrochloric acid:
  1. Wear eye protection.
  2. Wear gloves.
  3. Add water to spills immediately.
  4. Don’t pour it down the sink.
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2023 As Paper 1 Q08.2 (2 marks)

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8 control variables when comparing mitotic index of two different species of plants: (2 specific to comparing different species, 6 general)
  1. Choose plants of the same age.
  2. Grow the plants in the same conditions.
  3. Examine cells the same distance from the root tip.
  4. Put the tissue in the acid for the same time.
  5. Use the same concentration of acid.
  6. Squash them with the same pressure.
  7. Use several fields of view for each species.
  8. Conduct the experiment at the same time of day.
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2023 As Paper 1 Q08.5 (2 marks)

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4 ways to ensure an accurate and reliable mitotic index:
  1. Only count whole cells to standardise counting.
  2. Examine a large number of fields of view (and calculate a mean) to ensure a representative sample.
  3. Choose fields of view randomly to remove bias.
  4. Repeat the count to ensure the figures are correct.Note: I think this is the weakest one.
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2018 As Paper 2 Q5.4 (2 marks)

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Cell Membranes

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Function of the phospholipid bilayer:

Forms an impermeable barrier to polar, water-soluble substances but allows non-polar substances to diffuse across via simple diffusion (essentially acts as a selectively permeable barrier)

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2025 As Paper 1 Q8.1 (2 marks)

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Describe and explain the arrangement of phospholipids in the cell membrane:
  1. They form a bilayer, where water is present inside and outside of the cell.
  2. The hydrophobic fatty acid tails point inwards as they are repelled by water.
  3. The hydrophilic phosphate heads point outwards as they are attracted to water.
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2020 As P1 Q02.1 (2 marks)

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How should you draw phospholipids?

With a head and exactly two tails.

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2020 A-Level Paper 1 Q1.4 (2 marks)

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Why do unsaturated fatty acids cause the cell membrane to be more fluid?

The double bonds cause kinks in the fatty acid tail, causing the phospholipids to be further apart.

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2023 As Paper 1 Q3.4 (3 marks)

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What are the main 2 effects of an extremely high temperature on cells and why?
  1. Enzyme activity decreases as the active sites denature.
  2. Membrane fluidity increases due to the denaturing of carrier and channel proteins and the phospholipids gaining more kinetic energy.

Note: the water inside the cell gaining more kinetic energy and expanding also increases membrane fluidity, but I haven’t seen it mentioned on a mark scheme.

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2017 A-Level Paper 1 Q6.3 (2 marks)

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What is ethanol’s effect on cell membrane permeability and why?

It makes the cell membrane more permeable as the phospholipids of the bilayer dissolve in it.

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2020 As Paper 2 Q4.4 (4 marks)

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2 reasons a certain polar/ charged substance may be unable to enter a cell:
  1. It isn’t lipid soluble, meaning it can’t diffuse through the phospholipid bilayer.
  2. It is too large or the wrong shape, meaning it is unable to bind to or pass through any channel or carrier proteins.Note: This would be applied to a specific molecule that has been described in a way that shows its large/ has a specific shape (e.g. a polypeptide). If ‘molecules’ in general are not entering a cell via facilitated diffusion, it’s more likely because the proteins have denatured or they are all saturated.
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June 2012 Unit 1 Q7(b) (3 marks)

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How do water molecules enter cells?

Via osmosis through channel proteins called aquaporins.

Note: they can only do this because they are 'small'.

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2017 A-Level Paper 3 Q6.4 (2 marks)

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Definition of facilitated diffusion: (3 points)
  1. The movement of polar/charged molecules.
  2. Down a concentration gradient.
  3. Via a carrier/channel protein.
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2024 A-Level Paper 1 Q2.1 (3 marks)

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What would be the difference in the rate of uptake vs. % concentration graphs of polar and non-polar substances and why? (Difference + 3-point explanation)

Difference: For non-polar substances, the rate of uptake would continue increasing proportionally to the concentration and not level off. For polar substances, the rate of uptake would level off above a certain % concentration.

Explanation:

1. Non-polar substances are lipid soluble so can diffuse via simple diffusion across the phospholipid bilayer.

2. Polar substances are water soluble so have to diffuse via facilitated diffusion across channel/ carrier proteins.

3. At a certain % concentration, all of the channel/ carrier proteins will be saturated and in use, meaning the rate of facilitated diffusion will be unable to be increase further.

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AS P2 June 2018 Q04.2 (3 marks)

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AS P2 June 2018 Q04.3 (2 marks)

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3 differences between facilitated diffusion and active transport:
  1. Facilitated diffusion involves channel or carrier proteins whereas active transport only involves carrier proteins.Note: this one is often forgotten - never say active transport occurs via channel proteins.
  2. Facilitated diffusion does not use ATP whereas active transport uses ATP;
  3. Facilitated diffusion takes place down a concentration gradient whereas active transport occurs against a concentration gradient;
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Specimen A-Level Paper 1 Q5.1 (3 marks)

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Description of co-transport: (5 points)
  1. Sodium ions are actively transported from the ileum to blood via the sodium-potassium pump.
  2. This forms a concentration gradient where there is a lower concentration of sodium ions inside the ileum than outside.
  3. Sodium then enters the ileum via facilitated diffusion via co-transport proteins.
  4. Glucose also enters via facilitated diffusion with the sodium ions.
  5. Glucose then enters the blood via facilitated diffusion.

Note: 'Glucose' could of course be replaced with 'amino acids'.

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2025 As Paper 1 Q2.3 (3 marks)

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2022 As Paper 1 Q1.2 (4 marks)

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3 features of cells specialised for absorption:
  1. They have folded membranes to increase the surface area for absorption.
  2. They have a large number of carrier and channel proteins, allowing for a lot of facilitated diffusion and active transport.
  3. They have a large number of mitochondria, producing the ATP that releases energy for active transport.
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2022 As Paper 2 Q3.1 (2 marks)

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2023 A-Level Paper 2 Q6.1 (3 marks)

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What is the role of cholesterol in the cell membrane?

It stabilises the membrane by restricting the movement of the phospholipid tails.

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2022 A-Level Paper 1 Q03.5 (2 marks)

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RP 3 – Osmosis

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Describe how you would use the results from an osmosis practical (you found percentage change in mass of a potato slice in different concentrations of sugar solution) to find the water potential of the potato slice: (3 points)
  1. Plot calibration curve of concentration of solution against percentage change in mass.
  2. Interpolate (using the line of best fit) to find what the concentration would be at a change in mass of 0.
  3. Convert this concentration into water potential.
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2021 As Paper 1 Q08.4 (4 marks)

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Why should you dry the potatoes in the osmosis practical? (2 points)
  1. Water will affect the mass of the potatoes.
  2. Drying them ensures there will be the same amount of water on the outside of each cylinderNote: I’d also mention each cylinder having a different mass of water on its outside before drying.
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January 2011 Unit 1 Q5(a) (2 marks)

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Why should percentage change in mass be used, not just absolute change in mass? (2 points)
  1. Each cylinder will have a different starting mass.
  2. So using percentage change in mass allows for fair comparison, as it makes the change in mass proportional to the starting mass of each cylinder.
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January 2011 Unit 1 Q5(c) (2 marks)

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Why should multiple repeats of practicals be done?

To identify and discount anomalies, making the mean more reliable.

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January 2011 Unit 1 Q5(d) (2 marks)

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Explain why calibration curves plateau in the osmosis practical: (2 points)
  1. Because sodium/ sucrose concentration stops being the limiting factor, and another factor (e.g. temperature) becomes limiting.
  2. The reason concentration stops being a limiting factor is because water is being taken up through the pores at the maximum possible rate.
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2018 As Paper 2 Q04.2 (3 marks)

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June 2013 Unit 1 Q5(c)(ii) (2 marks)

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These two sources aren't specific to the osmosis practical, but they apply the same principle.

Why might recording change in mass of potatoes not be a valid way to measure osmosis?

Other substances such as sodium may be lost or gained, changing the mass.

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Not from a mark scheme, but useful content to know.

2 ways to control temperature in the osmosis practical:
  1. Take readings of the temperature at (stated e.g. 5 minute) intervals with a thermometer to make sure the temperature remains constant.
  2. Use an electric water bath.
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2017 As Paper 2 Q02.2 (1 marks)

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5 things to control in the osmosis practical, aside from temperature:
  1. Surface area of the potato cylinders.
  2. Mass of the potato cylinders
  3. Time spent in solution.
  4. Volume of solution.
  5. Surface area in contact with the solution (make sure they’re all fully submerged)
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2020 As Paper 2 Q04.2 (2 marks)

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2018 A-Level Paper 1 Q02.1 (3 marks)

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How to compare the mass of water lost from potato cubes of different surface areas over a given time period + what to control: (4 points)
  1. Ensure all cut surfaces of the cubes are exposed to the sucrose solution. This could be done by hanging them by a piece of thread in the solution so they are fully submerged but not touching the bottom.
  2. Control the temperature using an electric water bath set at 30 degrees C or taking multiple readings of the temperature to ensure it remains at the same room temperature (or 30 degrees C)
  3. Dry the cubes before measuring them by patting them dry with paper towels.
  4. Measure the mass of cubes every minute.
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2018 A-Level Paper 1 Q02.1 (3 marks)

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RP 4 – Cell Membrane Permeability

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Brief explanation of the cell membrane permeability practical (RP 4):

It assesses the influence of a given factor (e.g. ethanol concentration) on cell membrane permeability by placing beetroot discs (or something else that will leak pigment) in solutions of different ethanol concentrations, then finding how much pigment leaked by either comparing their colour to a dilution series of standard solutions, or by using colorimetry.

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Not from a mark scheme, but useful content to know.

4 control variables in the cell membrane permeability practical:
  1. Temperature.
  2. pH.
  3. Type/ age of beetroot.
  4. Amount of stirringNote: cholesterol content in the cell membranes as well as saturated vs unsaturated fatty acid composition of the cell membranes also affect the results.
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2020 A-Level Paper 1 Q04.2 (2 marks)

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Why is it important the volume of water added in the cell membrane permeability practical is controlled?

The volume of water will influence the absorbance readings for the solutions, as more water will produce lighter solutions due to the concentration of the pigment being lower. Therefore, to allow for valid comparison between the solutions, the volume of water should be kept the same.

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2025 As Paper 1 Q08.2 (2 marks)

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Why is it important that the mass of beetroot is controlled in the cell membrane permeability practical?

It affects the mass of pigment that can be released and therefore the rate of release of the pigment.

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2025 As Paper 1 Q08.2 (2 marks)

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2 ways a higher temperature causes the release of more pigment from beetroot discs:
  1. It causes the membrane proteins to become denatured.
  2. It causes the fluidity of the phospholipid bilayer to increase.
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2017 As Paper 2 Q02.4 (2 marks)

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Why should you shake the flask after adding the beetroot discs in the cell membrane permeability practical? (2 points)
  1. It ensure all surfaces of the discs are submerged and exposed to water.
  2. Which maintains a diffusion gradient for the pigment out of the discs.
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2017 A-Level Paper 1 Q6.3 (2 marks)

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Cell Recognition and the Immune System

23
Definition of an antigen: (2 points)
  1. A foreign protein.
  2. That stimulates an immune response and causes antibody production.
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June 2011 As Unit 1 Q7(b)(i) (2 marks)

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4 types of cells that can stimulate an immune response:
  1. Pathogens OR cells from an organism of another species.Note: notice that these fall under the same mark point, so giving both would only gain you 1 mark. I’m not sure why they weren’t credited separately.
  2. Cells from organisms of the same species.
  3. Abnormal body cells.
  4. Antigen-presenting cells.
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A-level P3 June 2023 Q06.1 (2 marks)

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Description of phagocytosis: (6 points)
  1. The phagocyte is attracted to the pathogen by chemo attractants released by the pathogen. It moves towards the pathogen along a concentration gradient via diffusion.
  2. The phagocyte has several receptors on its cell-surface membrane that attach to the chemicals on the surface of the pathogen. The phagocyte then engulfs the bacterium, forming a phagosome.
  3. Lysosomes within the phagocyte migrate towards and fuse with the phagosome (vesicle), forming a phagolysosome.
  4. The lysosomes release their lysozymes into the phagosome which then hydrolyse and break down the bacterium.
  5. The hydrolysis products of the bacterium are absorbed by the phagocyte.
  6. The pathogen's antigens are displayed on the phagocyte's cell surface membrane, making it become an antigen presenting cell.
Sources

2020 As Paper 1 Q3.1 (3 marks)

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2017 A-Level Paper 1 Q7.1 (3 marks)

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2021 A-Level Paper 1 Q7.1 (3 marks)

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June 2012 As Unit 1 Q5(b) (4 marks)

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2014 As Unit 1 Q3(a) (3 marks)

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Describe the role of the one organelle most involved in phagocytosis: (3 points)
  1. Lysosomes fuse with the vesicle.
  2. Then release hydrolytic enzymes.
  3. These breakdown and digest the pathogen.
Sources

2021 As Paper 1 Q3.2 (3 marks)

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Why does having more unsaturated fatty acids in its cell membrane cause a phagocyte to do more phagocytosis? (2 points)
  1. More unsaturated fatty acids increases the fluidity of the cell membrane.
  2. Making it easier for the phagocytes to engulf pathogens.
Sources

2024 A-Level Paper 1 Q1.4 (3 marks)

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If phagocytes are stimulated when they bind to the murein in a bacterium’s cell wall, why are bacteria with thicker capsules more likely to cause disease? (2 points)
  1. The thicker capsule means phagocytes are less likely to bind to and get stimulated by the murein.
  2. This causes reduced phagocytosis so more bacterial growth via binary fission.Note: When explaining why something causes more disease, always link it to more replication.
Sources

2023 As Paper 1 Q2.4 (2 marks)

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Description of the cellular response: (4 points)
  1. After a macrophage/ phagocyte engulfs a pathogen, it presents its antigens on its cell surface and becomes an antigen presenting cell.
  2. The T cell’s specific receptor then binds to the antigen, activating the T cell.
  3. This stimulates the T cell to divide by mitosis.
  4. They then produce stimulate B cells, activate phagocytosis and activate cytotoxic cells.
Sources

2017 A-Level Paper 1 Q7.2 (3 marks)

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Specimen A-Level Paper 3 Q4.4 (3 marks)

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How are B lymphocytes activated to produce plasma cells? (5 points)
  1. Macrophages present antigens to B lymphocytes.
  2. The antigen is complementary to receptors on the lymphocyte.
  3. They therefore bind to a specific lymphocyte.
  4. This causes the lymphocyte to become sensitised.
  5. This allows T helper cells to activate them to divide by mitosis.
Sources

2020 A-Level Paper 3 Q3.4 (3 marks)

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2021 As Paper 1 Q9.3 (3 marks)

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June 2013 As Unit 1 Q7(c) (5 marks)

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Mark scheme explanation of the humoural response: (6 points)
  1. A complementary antigen on the surface of the pathogen binds to the surface protein/ receptor on a specific B Cell.
  2. This B Cell is stimulated to divide by a helper T Cell (previously activated by the same antigen) binding to it. (clonal selection)
  3. The activated B Cell then divides by mitosis to form a clone of plasma cells (clonal expansion)
  4. These plasma cells then release antibodies.
  5. Some B Cells become memory cells.
  6. Memory cells produce antibodies faster.
Sources

2020 A-Level Paper 3 Q3.4 (3 marks)

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2017 A-Level Paper 1 Q7.2 (3 marks)

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Specimen A-Level Paper 3 Q4.4 (3 marks)

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2016 As Unit 1 Q7(b) (2 marks)

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June 2013 As Unit 1 Q7(c) (5 marks)

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Definition of an antibody:

A specific protein released by plasma cells in response to stimulation by a specific antigen.

Sources

Not from a mark scheme, but useful content to know.

Explanation of why an antibody only affects one type of cell (3 points):
  1. The antibody has a specific tertiary structure.
  2. Its binding site is therefore complementary to only one specific antigen.
  3. This specific antigen is only found on one type of cell, causing the antibody to only bind to this cell, and only form antigen-antibody complexes with antigens on this cell.
Sources

2017 As Paper 2 Q7.1 (4 marks)

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What is the role of antibodies in stimulating phagocytosis? (2 points)
  1. They bind to their complementary antigens on the pathogen, forming an antibody-antigen complex.
  2. This causes agglutination and attracts phagocytes.
Sources

2019 As Paper 2 Q4.1 (2 marks)

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How do vaccines work? (7 points)
  1. They contain antigens.
  2. Usually from dead or weakened pathogens.
  3. Memory cells are produced when they are injected.
  4. On second exposure these memory cells are activated as they recognise the antigens on the pathogen.
  5. These memory cells then rapidly produce more antibodies.
  6. The antibodies destroy the pathogens.
  7. The herd immunity effect occurs, as there are few people to pass on the disease.Note: this is probably worth mentioning on any vaccine question.Note: This is just the general description of how vaccines cause immunity, there are some questions that require more detailed explanations of the humoural response and how it leads to the production of memory cells, which will be covered later in the doc.
Sources

January 2012 Unit 1 Q8(a) (5 marks)

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Why does giving somebody a second vaccine improve their immunity? (2 points)
  1. It causes the production of more memory cells.
  2. This means there is a more rapid production of antibodies and the concentration of antibodies in the blood rises more on further infection.
Sources

AS P1 June 2022 Q09.5 (2 marks)

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4 reasons there’s no effective vaccine against HIV:
  1. HIV has a high rate of mutation.
  2. HIV has high genetic diversity.
  3. There may be a lack of funding for research.
  4. HIV causes there to be fewer T cells, so the immune response to the vaccine doesn’t happen.
Sources

2024 A-Level Paper 3 Q01.2 (1 marks)

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6 differences between active and passive immunity:
  1. Active produces memory cells, passive does not.
  2. Active involves the production of antibodies by plasma cells.
  3. Passive involves antibodies introduced from an outside source.
  4. Active is a long-term response as an antibody is produced in response to an antigen.
  5. Passive is short-term as the antibody is eventually broken down.
  6. Active can take time to work, passive is fast acting.
Sources

Specimen As Paper 2 Q10.2 (5 marks)

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Why does herd immunity work?

A high number of vaccinated people means it is less likely for unvaccinated people to come into contact with a person who has the disease as few people will be carrying the disease.

Sources

2015 As Unit 1 Q5(c) (2 marks)

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3 reasons people in hospitals are more likely to become infected by a given disease:
  1. They have weakened immune systems so are more susceptible to the disease.
  2. They are more likely to get infected as they come into contact with a large number of people.
  3. There will be more people with the disease in the hospital so they are more likely to come in contact with it.
Sources

2025 As Paper 1 Q9.5 (2 marks)

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3 ethical issues surrounding the use of vaccines and monoclonal antibodies:
  1. Production involves the use of animals.
  2. There is the potential for dangerous side effects that people may not be aware of.
  3. People may get ill or die during clinical trials of the treatments.
Sources

2021 As Paper 1 Q9.5 (1 marks)

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Points 2. and 3. are not from a mark scheme, but are useful to know.

3 structural features found in all viral particles and their functions:
  1. Genetic material - codes for viral proteins.
  2. Capsid - protects the genetic material.
  3. Attachment proteins - binds to receptors on cells.
Sources

2023 A-Level Paper 1 Q1.1 (2 marks)

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Describe the structure of HIV: (5 points)

It contains:

  1. RNA.
  2. Reverse transcriptase.
  3. A protein capsid.
  4. A lipid envelope.
  5. Attachment proteins.
Sources

A-level P1 June 2019 Q05.1 (4 marks)

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Mark scheme description of how HIV is replicated: (8 points)
  1. Attachment proteins attach to receptors on helper T Cell.
  2. Viral RNA enters the cell.
  3. Reverse transcriptase converts RNA to DNA.
  4. DNA inserted into T-helper cell’s nucleus and modifies the cell’s DNA.
  5. DNA transcribed into HIV mRNA.
  6. HIV mRNA translated on the ribosomes into viral proteins.
  7. Viral proteins/ capsids (name capsids) are produced.
  8. Virus is assembled and released from the cell via budding off.Note: When adding the sources, I noticed that a few of these points didn’t seem to actually appear in any of the mark schemes. However, they’re correct and must’ve come from somewhere so I’d still include them.
Sources

2021 As Paper 1 Q2.2 (4 marks)

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2021 A-Level Paper 3 Q2.1 (4 marks)

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2022 A-Level Paper 1 Q4.1 (3 marks)

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2024 As Paper 1 Q3.1 (4 marks)

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Why can’t antibiotics be used against viruses? (3 points)
  1. Viruses don’t have a cell wall so don’t have a site for antibiotics to work.
  2. They don’t have any metabolic processes or cell structures that antibiotics can disrupt.
  3. Antibiotics can’t reach viruses inside cells.
Sources

2023 A-Level Paper 1 Q1.3 (1 marks)

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RP 6 – Aseptic Techniques

6
What do aseptic techniques do?

They prevent contamination and kill all bacteria.

Sources

2018 A-Level Paper 3 Q06.6 (2 marks)

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List of all aseptic techniques + explanations where relevant: (9)
  1. Wash hands with soap and disinfect the surfaces to kill microbes.
  2. Sterilise equipment by boiling them or using an autoclave.
  3. Work near to a bunsen burner to create upwards movement of air (convection currents).
  4. Sterilise the inoculating loop (or pipette) by flaming it with a bunsen burner.
  5. Lift the lid of the agar plate at an angle and for as little time as possible to prevent the entry of microbes.
  6. Flame the neck of any bottles with a bunsen burner to sterilise them.
  7. Place all equipment into disinfectant after use.
  8. Tape the plate lightly to prevent the lid from opening but do not seal it so air exchange can still happen so anaerobic bacteria do not grow.
  9. Incubate at 25 degrees C to reduce rate of pathogen growth and cause them to not grow at and be adapted to human body temperature.
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2023 A-Level Paper 1 Q05.1 (3 marks)

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2022 A-Level Paper 1 Q02.3 (3 marks)

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2019 As Paper 2 Q06.1 (3 marks)

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2025 As Paper 2 Q08.2 (2 marks)

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2018 A-Level Paper 3 Q06.6 (2 marks)

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When should an inoculating loop vs. pipette be used to transfer the bacteria?

If you are transferring a specified volume of bacteria, you must use a pipette. Otherwise, you can use an inoculating loop.Note: then, after transferring with a pipette, use a spreader to spread out the bacteria.

Sources

2022 A-Level Paper 1 Q02.3 (3 marks)

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What is the purpose of working near a constantly lit bunsen burner? (2 points)
  1. To create upwards air movement via convection currents,.
  2. This draws microbes away from the culture.Note: its purpose is not to sterilise the working environment (never say this).
Sources

2019 As Paper 2 Q06.1 (3 marks)

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What is the purpose of transferring the same volume of liquid culture onto each agar plate?

So the same number of bacteria is transferred onto each plate, which allows a valid comparison between them.

Sources

2017 As Paper 1 Q02.1 (2 marks)

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3 control variables relating to the paper discs in the aseptic techniques practical:
  1. They should have the same area.
  2. The should be made of the same material so they have the same absorbency.
  3. They should be soaked in the solution for the same duration.
Sources

2016 As Paper 2 Q08.3 (2 marks)

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Monoclonal Antibodies

4
Monoclonal antibody definition:

Antibodies with the same tertiary structure produced from identical plasma cells.Note: Use this full definition to guarantee the mark.

Sources

2019 As Paper 1 Q2.1 (1 marks)

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Examples of how monoclonal antibodies are used in medicine: (3)
  1. They target specific antigens on specific cells.Note: you could mention cancer cells as an example of a specific cell.
  2. They carry drugs to specific cells.
  3. They block antigens on cells.

Note: The idea of specific targeting is obviously important.

Sources

2019 As Paper 1 Q2.2 (1 marks)

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Monoclonal antibodies can deliver drugs inside the body - how do they do this?

The drug attaches to the constant region of the antibody and the variable region of the antibody then attaches to the receptors of the specific cell being targeted.Note: I wrote this because there was a question where you were asked to draw an antibody attached to a drug, and I drew the drug attached to the variable region, which was wrong.

Sources

2024 As Paper 1 Q7.1 (2 marks)

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Describe the role of antibodies in producing a positive result in an ELISA test when testing for the presence of a specific antigen: (5 points)
  1. The first antibody (attached to the well) binds to the complementary antigen in the sample.
  2. The second antibody, with the enzyme attached, is added.
  3. The second antibody attaches to the antibody-antigen complex.
  4. You should then wash to remove any unattached antibodies to prevent a false positive.
  5. The substrate solution is added and the colour changes when enzyme-substrate complexes form.Note: You could have either described direct or indirect, this is the answer for indirect. Either way, you had to get the idea of the antibody being complementary to the antigen, an antibody with an enzyme attached being added, and the colour changing when a substrate is added. Personally, I’m going to describe indirect if a similar question comes up in the exam.
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2019 As Paper 1 Q2.3 (4 marks)

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2019 A-Level Paper 1 Q06.3 (3 marks)

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